Attempt free PGIMER Nursing Officer 2026 online mock quiz on Obstetrics & Gynaecological Nursing (OBG) – Labour and Delivery. Practice top 30 repeated multiple-choice questions with clinical rationales, instant scoring, and correct answers to boost your preparation for PGIMER, NORCET, and RRB Nursing Officer exams.
🎯 Target PGIMER Chandigarh Nursing Officer 2026 | Daily High-Yield Practice QuizNursing aspirants ke liye Obstetrics & Gynaecology (OBG) ka sabse scoring topic “Normal & Abnormal Labour” ke top 30 clinical & scenario-based MCQs ka live quiz live kar diya gaya hai.📌 Quiz Highlights:✅ Exact PGIMER & Central Govt Exam Pattern questions✅ Cardinal movements, Partograph, AMTSL, PPH, and Complications covered✅ Har sawal ke sath accurate clinical rationales✅ Real-time score calculator aur instant answer feedbackApni tayari ko parkhein aur exam me negative marking se bachein. Niche diye link par click karein aur abhi attempt karein! 👇
PGIMER Nursing Officer Bharti 2026
OBG Mock Test: Labour & Delivery (30 High-Yield MCQs)
1. The onset of true labour pain is best distinguished from false labour pain by which of the following features?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: True labour pain is characterized by regular, painful uterine contractions accompanied by progressive effacement and dilatation of the cervix along with descent of the presenting part.
Rationale: True labour pain is characterized by regular, painful uterine contractions accompanied by progressive effacement and dilatation of the cervix along with descent of the presenting part.
2. The ideal and most common pelvis type favorable for normal vaginal delivery is:
Right Answer: C
Rationale: Gynecoid pelvis is the typical female pelvis present in ~50% of women, with a rounded brim, blunt ischial spines, and wide subpubic arch.
Rationale: Gynecoid pelvis is the typical female pelvis present in ~50% of women, with a rounded brim, blunt ischial spines, and wide subpubic arch.
3. When the leading bony point of the fetal head is at the level of maternal ischial spines, the station is recorded as:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Station 0 indicates that the widest transverse diameter of the fetal presenting part has engaged and reached the level of maternal ischial spines.
Rationale: Station 0 indicates that the widest transverse diameter of the fetal presenting part has engaged and reached the level of maternal ischial spines.
4. What is the engaging transverse diameter of the normal maternal pelvic inlet?
Right Answer: C
Rationale: The transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet measures approximately 13 cm (widest diameter of inlet), while the obstetric conjugate measures around 10.5-11 cm.
Rationale: The transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet measures approximately 13 cm (widest diameter of inlet), while the obstetric conjugate measures around 10.5-11 cm.
5. In a normal vertex presentation with complete flexion of the fetal head, the engaging anteroposterior diameter is:
Right Answer: A
Rationale: Full flexion brings the smallest diameter—Suboccipito-bregmatic (9.5 cm)—into the pelvic canal for engagement.
Rationale: Full flexion brings the smallest diameter—Suboccipito-bregmatic (9.5 cm)—into the pelvic canal for engagement.
6. Which phase of the first stage of labour begins when the cervix reaches 4 cm dilation up to complete (10 cm) dilation?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: The active phase begins from 4 cm onwards, during which cervical dilation occurs at a much faster rate.
Rationale: The active phase begins from 4 cm onwards, during which cervical dilation occurs at a much faster rate.
7. Which cardinal movement of labour occurs immediately following internal rotation of the head?
Right Answer: C
Rationale: Order of cardinal movements: Engagement -> Descent -> Flexion -> Internal rotation -> Extension -> Restitution -> External rotation -> Expulsion.
Rationale: Order of cardinal movements: Engagement -> Descent -> Flexion -> Internal rotation -> Extension -> Restitution -> External rotation -> Expulsion.
8. A prolonged latent phase of labour in a primigravida is defined when it exceeds:
Right Answer: D
Rationale: According to Friedman, prolonged latent phase is >20 hours in primigravida and >14 hours in multipara.
Rationale: According to Friedman, prolonged latent phase is >20 hours in primigravida and >14 hours in multipara.
9. In a WHO modified partograph, the Action line is drawn parallel to the Alert line at an interval of:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: The Action line is placed 4 hours to the right of the Alert line to trigger active interventions or referral.
Rationale: The Action line is placed 4 hours to the right of the Alert line to trigger active interventions or referral.
10. As per WHO guidelines, the drug of choice and dose for Active Management of Third Stage of Labour (AMTSL) is:
Right Answer: A
Rationale: Oxytocin 10 IU IM given within 1 minute of fetal delivery is the primary uterotonic of choice in AMTSL.
Rationale: Oxytocin 10 IU IM given within 1 minute of fetal delivery is the primary uterotonic of choice in AMTSL.
11. All of the following are classic signs of placental separation EXCEPT:
Right Answer: C
Rationale: After separation, the uterus becomes firm and globular (not soft and discoid) and rises toward the umbilicus.
Rationale: After separation, the uterus becomes firm and globular (not soft and discoid) and rises toward the umbilicus.
12. In which mechanism of placental separation does the placenta separate centrally and deliver with its shiny fetal surface first?
Right Answer: A
Rationale: Schultze mechanism involves central detachment presenting with fetal surface (‘Shiny Schultze’). Duncan mechanism detaches peripherally (‘Dirty Duncan’).
Rationale: Schultze mechanism involves central detachment presenting with fetal surface (‘Shiny Schultze’). Duncan mechanism detaches peripherally (‘Dirty Duncan’).
13. With active management, the normal duration of the third stage of labour usually does not exceed:
Right Answer: A
Rationale: AMTSL typically expels placenta within 5 to 15 minutes. Beyond 30 minutes, it is managed as a retained placenta.
Rationale: AMTSL typically expels placenta within 5 to 15 minutes. Beyond 30 minutes, it is managed as a retained placenta.
14. Variable decelerations on a cardiotocograph (CTG) during labour indicate cord compression. The immediate nursing action is:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Changing maternal posture to left lateral relieves pressure off the umbilical cord and improves placental perfusion.
Rationale: Changing maternal posture to left lateral relieves pressure off the umbilical cord and improves placental perfusion.
15. The primary purpose of performing Modified Ritgen’s maneuver during the second stage is to:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Ritgen’s maneuver provides controlled extension of the fetal head between contractions to prevent perineal tears.
Rationale: Ritgen’s maneuver provides controlled extension of the fetal head between contractions to prevent perineal tears.
16. Which type of episiotomy carries the highest risk of extension into the anal sphincter?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Median episiotomy is cut directly down towards the anus, carrying higher danger of 3rd and 4th-degree perineal tears.
Rationale: Median episiotomy is cut directly down towards the anus, carrying higher danger of 3rd and 4th-degree perineal tears.
17. A perineal tear involving the vaginal mucosa, perineal muscles, and the external anal sphincter is graded as:
Right Answer: C
Rationale: 3rd-degree tear involves the anal sphincter complex. 4th-degree tear breaches the anal mucosa/rectum completely.
Rationale: 3rd-degree tear involves the anal sphincter complex. 4th-degree tear breaches the anal mucosa/rectum completely.
18. What is the initial, non-invasive maneuver of choice for managing shoulder dystocia?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: McRoberts maneuver (sharp flexion of maternal thighs onto abdomen) combined with suprapubic pressure resolves the majority of cases.
Rationale: McRoberts maneuver (sharp flexion of maternal thighs onto abdomen) combined with suprapubic pressure resolves the majority of cases.
19. The appearance of Bandl’s pathological retraction ring during active labour is a classical sign of:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Bandl’s ring forms between the hypertonic upper segment and over-thinned lower segment, warning of imminent uterine rupture due to obstruction.
Rationale: Bandl’s ring forms between the hypertonic upper segment and over-thinned lower segment, warning of imminent uterine rupture due to obstruction.
20. Precipitate labour is clinically diagnosed when the entire labour process finishes within:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Labour lasting less than 3 hours from the onset of true regular contractions to fetal expulsion is defined as precipitate labour.
Rationale: Labour lasting less than 3 hours from the onset of true regular contractions to fetal expulsion is defined as precipitate labour.
21. The single most common cause of Primary Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH) is:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine atony accounts for roughly 75% to 80% of all primary PPH cases.
Rationale: Uterine atony accounts for roughly 75% to 80% of all primary PPH cases.
22. On abdominal palpation (fifth rule), engagement of the fetal head is confirmed when:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: When <= 2/5ths of the head is palpable above the brim, the biparietal diameter has passed the pelvic inlet.
Rationale: When <= 2/5ths of the head is palpable above the brim, the biparietal diameter has passed the pelvic inlet.
23. What is the priority nursing intervention immediately following Artificial Rupture of Membranes (ARM)?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Immediate FHR auscultation is mandatory to rule out occult or overt umbilical cord prolapse.
Rationale: Immediate FHR auscultation is mandatory to rule out occult or overt umbilical cord prolapse.
24. The Bishop score is an essential scoring system used to determine:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Bishop score rates 5 factors (Dilation, Effacement, Station, Consistency, Position). A score >= 8 indicates favorable cervix for induction.
Rationale: Bishop score rates 5 factors (Dilation, Effacement, Station, Consistency, Position). A score >= 8 indicates favorable cervix for induction.
25. Which uterotonic drug is strictly contraindicated in a woman with PPH who has severe hypertension or pre-eclampsia?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Methylergometrine causes generalized arterial vasoconstriction and can trigger hypertensive crisis or stroke.
Rationale: Methylergometrine causes generalized arterial vasoconstriction and can trigger hypertensive crisis or stroke.
26. Which obstetrical maneuver is used to assist the delivery of extended arms in a breech presentation?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Lövset’s maneuver involves rotating the fetal trunk 180 degrees back and forth to deliver extended shoulders and arms.
Rationale: Lövset’s maneuver involves rotating the fetal trunk 180 degrees back and forth to deliver extended shoulders and arms.
27. Crowning of the fetal head occurs during the second stage of labour when:
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Crowning is the point where the maximum transverse diameter (biparietal) distends the vulval outlet without slipping back after uterine contraction ceases.
Rationale: Crowning is the point where the maximum transverse diameter (biparietal) distends the vulval outlet without slipping back after uterine contraction ceases.
28. What is the standard dose and site of Vitamin K1 (Phytomenadione) administered to a healthy term newborn?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Standard dose is 1.0 mg IM in the vastus lateralis for term infants (0.5 mg for preterm) to prevent Vitamin K Deficiency Bleeding (VKDB).
Rationale: Standard dose is 1.0 mg IM in the vastus lateralis for term infants (0.5 mg for preterm) to prevent Vitamin K Deficiency Bleeding (VKDB).
29. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to the induction of labour?
Right Answer: B
Rationale: Previous classical hysterotomy carries a high risk of catastrophic uterine rupture under the stress of labour contractions.
Rationale: Previous classical hysterotomy carries a high risk of catastrophic uterine rupture under the stress of labour contractions.
30. The fourth stage of labour is clinically recognized as the period of:
Right Answer: C
Rationale: Fourth stage is the immediate recovery and monitoring period (1-2 hours) focused on pulse, BP, uterine tone, and early detection of PPH.
Rationale: Fourth stage is the immediate recovery and monitoring period (1-2 hours) focused on pulse, BP, uterine tone, and early detection of PPH.
PGIMER Nursing Officer 2026 • PGIMER Chandigarh Nursing Officer Syllabus • OBG MCQs with Answers • Labour and Delivery Nursing Questions • Stages of Labour MCQs • AIIMS NORCET OBG Practice Set • Central Govt Nursing Officer Preparation • AMTSL Guidelines MCQs • Staff Nurse Exam Quiz 2026 • Nursing Officer Online Test Series
